2024-04-06 14:50:51
1.6% is inaccurate, or inaccurately calculated Of those in states where slavery was legal, various sources find that over 20% of households owned slaves. [Link] NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(4-0-20) Author
2024-04-06 14:59:33
NNN the statement wasn’t that 1.6% of Southerners owned slaves which hasn’t been demonstrated here to be inaccurate. This statement is a better fit for the comments NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(5-0-0) Author
2024-04-06 15:01:56
NNN The claim that about 1.6% of the population was Slavs owners at the time is correct, even according to the source included. 20% of slave owning states (which are largely rural and and less than half the states in the union) adds up to about 1.4%, within margin of error. [Link] NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(6-0-0) Author
2024-04-06 15:05:10
NNN - The article linked uses a variety of manipulation tactics to make it appear the number is 20%, such as account for only slave owning states or counting family members of slave owners. This also does not address the original point, which is US Citizens who owned slaves only. NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(8-0-0) Author
2024-04-06 18:57:27
NNN the article posted literally says, "The U.S. had 395,216 slaveholders at that time, so about 1.4% of free people were classified as slave owners in the 1860 census, according to data archived by the Integrated Public Use Microdata Series at the University of Minnesota." NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(3-0-0) Author
2024-04-06 20:35:27
there are a lot of calculations that go into a study like this if you want an accurate precentage check here [Link] not related to the note: please remember though life is too short to worry about the past if you wanna talk about issues focous on the issues going on right now NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(0-0-3) Author