2024-11-26 13:52:50
It would be factually incorrect to say "Everyone" as Megasthenes (3rd century BC) observed that there is no slavery in India. Reference- [Link] NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(5-0-22) Author
2024-11-26 15:27:38
NNN - Note provided talks about one specific region in one specific time period for no reason. India just like every other region on Earth has had slavery at some point in its history and in fact still has large forced labor problems. [Link][Link] NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(10-0-2) Author
2024-11-26 15:34:51
NNN - post states descendants. Slavery has been traced back at least 11k years. No individual alive would be a singular, direct descendent of someone from 3rd century BC. CM are not for comments. [Link] NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(7-0-1) Author
2024-11-26 15:52:31
Megasthenes was incorrect about slaver in India. The Arthashastra, an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft and economics attributed to Kautilya, provides detailed accounts of slavery practices, including regulations on the treatment and rights of slaves. [Link] NEEDS_MORE_RATINGS(8-1-5) Author